Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 10:17
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
The dancing monk: Why mature people don’t chase total control - Big Think
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What are some other ways to say "you're welcome" in French besides "de rien"?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.